The wikipedia entry for John Mandeville says:
In the body of the work, we hear that he had been at Paris and Constantinople...had been at Mount Sinai...had been in Russia, Livonia, Kraków, Lithuania...had been at Cansay (Hangchow-fu) in China..
The ‘at’ here certainly sounds archaic except for Mt Sinai. (Could this part of the entry have been lifted from an old encyclopedia? It doesn’t say in the discussion page for the entry.)
There is Marlowe’s play The Massacre at Paris but in Paris doesn’t sound right somehow maybe because it is an event though we wouldn’t say ‘the attacks at New York’. The wikipedia entry for this play says:
The Massacre at Paris is an Elizabethan play by the English dramatist Christopher Marlowe. It concerns the Saint Bartholomew’s Day Massacre, which took place in Paris in 1572…
Is ‘at’ ever used now? When did the full switch occur, if it did, according to OED and why? We say “I will meet you at (or in) Burger King” but not, as far as I know, at Bognor Regis.
Any thoughts welcome.