Online Dictionary of Language Terminology
Posted: 29 October 2007 08:49 AM   [ Ignore ]
Avatar
RankRankRankRank
Total Posts:  2334
Joined  2007-01-30

Online Dictionary of Language Terminology

I quite enjoyed browsing through some of the entries. Here’s a couple of selections:

Kenning

Definition:  A compound expression that creates a metaphorical synonym for another, more mundane noun.
Example:
(1) oar-steed (a ship)
(2) storm of swords (battle)
(3) whale road (the sea)
Note: Kennings were common in Norse oral literature. For example, the name Beowulf was coined from the kenning beo wulf, bee wolf (i.e., a bear, because bears like honey).
Etymology: The word derives from the Old Norse kenna eitt við, express one thing in terms of another.
Note: the word derives from a mediæval Icelandic work on poetics.
OED: The term’s first OED citation is from 1883: “The extreme development of the ‘kenning’ in Northern Poetry.”
(Vigfusson & Powell Corpus Poet. Bor. II. 448)
Sources: Oxford English Dictionary

Dionysius Thrax

Dionysius Thrax
(170 BCE — 90 BCE) A Greek grammarian who lived and worked in Alexandria and, purportedly, wrote the first proper Greek grammar — the Art of Grammar (Tékhnē grammatiké).
In his book, which only dealt with word morphology (the study of sentence syntax had to wait 300 years for Apollonius Dyscolus’ work), he introduced the idea that there are eight parts of speech.
Though Thrax’s concept only pertained to Greek, the idea that there are just eight parts of speech greatly influenced subsequent Latin and English grammarians.
Note: He was called Thrax because his father was a Thracian.

see: Panini

Profile
 
 
Posted: 29 October 2007 12:04 PM   [ Ignore ]   [ # 1 ]
RankRankRankRankRank
Total Posts:  3507
Joined  2007-01-29

Interesting, but as with all such amateur operations you have to double-check against other sources. I note with bemusement the word antisthecon “Substituting a sound, letter, or syllable for another sound, letter, or syllable in a word”; it gets a few Google hits, but it’s not in the OED (as you’d think any respectable rhetorical term would be) and its purported etymology doesn’t make sense: “The word derives from the Greek anti, against + stoicheon, letter order.” If that were the case, it should be antistoecheum (or, if coined by a Hellenist, antistoikheion). Checking Google Books, it seems to date from the ‘60s; I wish I knew how it was coined and by whom. Not that any of that’s his fault.

But this is:

Noam Chomsky

The Descarte of linguistics.

Not only do I not know what that’s supposed to mean, but Descartes is misspelled.  So, like I said, caveat emptor.

Profile
 
 
Posted: 29 October 2007 12:18 PM   [ Ignore ]   [ # 2 ]
Avatar
RankRankRank
Total Posts:  407
Joined  2007-02-14

Perhaps because Noam wrote a book called Cartesian Linguistics.

[Addendum.]

Antistoechia (αντιστοιχια) may be closer to the mark. In a book Acta apostolorum apocrypha post Constantinum Tischendorf edited by R A Lipsius and M Bonnet in 1891: “De rebus orthographicis uideas quae ad passionem Petri monui. taceo de uocalium et consonarum antistoechia, ut ae et e, oe et ae, e oe, i et y, e et i (quatinus, spiculator, cf. Schuchardt I. 382. intelligere)” etc. It seems to be not a rhetorical term, but one to identify common mistakes in manuscripts based on later sound changes and confusion of forms of letters, e.g., c for t, etc. It seems to me that antisthecon for antistoechia illustrates the process itself nicely. (The book referred to is Hugo Schuchardt’s Vokalismus der Vulgärlateins (1866-8) Leipzig.) According to F F Bruce, ”Marius Victorinus and His Works” in The Evangelical Quarterly 18 (1946): 132-153, the 4th century CE Roman grammarian, C. Marius Victorinus used the word antistooechia first in Latin.

[ Edited: 29 October 2007 01:05 PM by jheem ]
Profile
 
 
Posted: 29 October 2007 02:02 PM   [ Ignore ]   [ # 3 ]
RankRankRankRank
Total Posts:  590
Joined  2007-02-22
languagehat - 29 October 2007 12:04 PM

So, like I said, caveat emptor.

Shouldn’t that be caveat lector?

Profile
 
 
Posted: 29 October 2007 05:39 PM   [ Ignore ]   [ # 4 ]
RankRank
Total Posts:  37
Joined  2007-06-27

I should think so, particularly as Descartes and Chomsky are invovled.

Profile
 
 
Posted: 29 October 2007 06:25 PM   [ Ignore ]   [ # 5 ]
RankRank
Total Posts:  66
Joined  2007-03-04

An admirable enterprise, and it’s easy enough to double check with OED or similar before using any of the words in polite company. I note that it doesn’t have the term rhinoglottophilia (also absent from the Concise Oxford Dictionary of Linguistics) which is a disappointing oversight but much easier to remedy in a website than a book.

Profile
 
 
Posted: 30 October 2007 02:50 AM   [ Ignore ]   [ # 6 ]
Avatar
RankRankRankRank
Total Posts:  1181
Joined  2007-02-14
languagehat - 29 October 2007 12:04 PM

I note with bemusement the word antisthecon “Substituting a sound, letter, or syllable for another sound, letter, or syllable in a word”; it gets a few Google hits, but it’s not in the OED (as you’d think any respectable rhetorical term would be) ...

But it is in Silva Rhetoricae, FWIW.

Profile
 
 
Posted: 30 October 2007 03:08 AM   [ Ignore ]   [ # 7 ]
Avatar
RankRankRankRank
Total Posts:  2334
Joined  2007-01-30

Also spelled antistoecon, as in this Catalogue of rhetorical and other literary terms from American literature and oratory.

Profile